We have a stocked machine (Part A) that is 99% the same as another part number (Part B) - one that is specific to a customer. We had an order for Part B and we had 1 Part A in stock. So we were able to easily convert Part A to Part B (physically). However, we’re stuck trying to make the appropriate transactions in Epicor. It is a serial tracked machine and did not re-serialize it. Do we re-open the job? Create a new job and consume Part A into making Part B? What is the equivalent for RMA when it’s just in stock and not shipped?
We’ve not done it yet in Epicor. That’s what I’m trying to understand. Before I go down a path, I wanted to weigh the community’s collective knowledge for best practices for this type of scenario. It’s not uncommon - but because of supply chain and everything right now, we typically haven’t had the luxury of being able to take something from stock and converting it. I know this will happen again in the future.
In order to turn one part into another, a job is needed. I dont know of any other way. Create a job for Part B and have it with Mtl of part A. When you issue part A into the job, the cost will move into the job so you can see the true total cost of Part B once you are done converting it to Part B. If you have Part B as a serialized part, when you complete the job to make part B, and when you do the job receipt to inventory you can create a new serial number for part B there. And depending on how you are tracking serial numbers, you can even see the serial number of part A that went into that job.
The main thing is the output of the job is Part B.
This is how I would do it.
That’s definitely one way I considered doing it. I have a couple reservations that make me unsure of my confidence in this method:
If the conversion requires an exchange of parts, rather than just adding parts… can I do that with this method?
My understanding is that Part B will require a new serial number - which is not ideal because we base a lot of the paperwork, manuals, warranty stuff on the serial number which we would not be changing (unless absolutely necessary). I was going to try to manually move the job on the serial number to the new job and re-set the status to WIP and see if I could pick the same serial number as the original one.
In response to the first bullet, could I re-open the job, return some material, issue some other material, and then re-close the job? Then use that Part A as a material in a job to create Part B? I still have to figure out the serial number issue - but I feel that’s more manageable than trying to reconcile the exchanged parts.
Serial numbers are part specific. So serial number on Part A of 1234 and be created on part B since they are different part numbers. Yes you will make a “new” one, but it will be the same as Part A’s.
Yeah I was hoping that I’d be able to manually make it work. I know that the system probably would ask me to generate a new one… but if I went to the original one, created a new Part Number record for it… then set the status to WIP and put in my new job, I was thinking it would show up and allow me to select it. Any thoughts about
If the conversion requires an exchange of parts, rather than just adding parts… can I do that with this method?
You can use the Return Miscellaneous Material to “return” a material part number to inventory from a job that didn’t use it as a material in the first place.
How about making the Part B serial number alphanumeric (at least temporarily) so you can assign the same serial number as on A and then change part B back to whatever sequential/etc assignment you have for it as standard? We do this sometimes and it works well.
Part B is on the sales order. Part A is the item currently in stock.
I like the idea. I, too, wonder where the cost goes. I assume it wouldn’t stay with the jobs but rather to a misc. cost account.
That’s an idea for the serial number. I hadn’t considered this… but I think I can just force it to use the same serial number if I manually create a new part on the Serial Number (for Part B) and set the fields up properly.
I should have mentioned the costing issues. MOST LIKELY, and you’ll want to test this out to be certain, since the “material” didn’t exist on the job in the first place it will NOT reduce any cost from the job… therefore will go back into inventory at zero cost… which will have a (deleterious) effect on your inventory value if you are the part is average (or lot average) costed.
seems like you need to have a job for Part B with a Mtl component of Part A and the other stuff.
The subtraction of material from Part A will be the tricky part.
If your original job for Part A was for a quantity of 1, you might be able to open that job up and change the demand link of it to a Mtl on your Job for part B.
Then on the Part A job return some material from the job then complete the job and do a Job receipt to Job.
Not sure if all the serialization gets in the way of any of those transactions though.
It was more of a question because I don’t use salvage at all but I believe one of the functions is refunding all or part of the cost of the salvaged part to the job.