For every cost adjustment, you get a pair of transactions. The first one is going to take you inventory out at the cost that it was, the second is going to put the inventory back in at the cost that it was changed to. So you have a before and after in that pair.
Cost Adjustments entries in the PartTran History can be hard to decipher. And they only generate transactions if there is QOH.
If you have zero QOH of a sub-assy, and do a cost roll up, it will not make a PartTran entry for that sub-assy. The PartCost file will be updated, but no PartTran records created.
Thatâs not true. They will still make transactions without QTY oh. I know, because I have parts with the wrong UOM from when we re-implemented that I canât change because there are cost adjustments on it, even though we didnât have any in stock at the time.
edit: it will not make a GL transaction with 0 since the cost is 0, but it will put a transaction in the part tran table.
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I got it. SO i have part A, and it has two entries for 3/18/2019. The first one take sit out of inventory and subtracts what the cost was before the roll-up. Then the 2nd line is when it is put back and the new over all cost. So the difference is the adjustment that shows up in Accounting.
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Yeah, I was wrong on that (I too was bitten by cost Adj on âold P/Nâsâ that we never used, and now cannot delete them.
I was thinking about GL Trans. No GL trans occurs when the Cost changes for a part with zero QOH.
You said that doing a cost rollup on a mfgâd part that uses the LAST cost method, will update the STD cost for that part. But I assume it does not create any ADJ-CST trans - regardless of the QOH.
I said average, and it does still create the ADJ-CST transaction. I happened to pick a part that was standard costed (one of the few in our system) by accident and did a cost adjustment on average cost. I still got a pair of transations per warehouse.
So I did another test below. This is an average costed part that had no transactions on it yet, I did a cost adjustment to the standard cost, and got a pair of transactions for it. So it doesnât matter what the cost method is, you still get a part tran entry. The same happens in a cost rollup.
If the costs doesnât change in a cost roll, then you wonât get a transaction. (so if your method is identical, and you didnât change resource group standards).
Weâre describing two different thingsâŠ
I was referring to changes created by the Cost Roll-up, not a manual cost adjust.
A new Assy is created, its costs are zero for all cost types.
If the assy is set to use AVG costing, then the AVG cost is updated every time it is received from WIP to stock, Or WIP to customer.
The LAST costs in the cost file is updated to the cost of this âlastâ use, and the STD cost remains unchanged.
If a cost rollup is done, only the STD costs would be changed, correct? And since the part uses AVG costing, there would be no changes to to the inventory on hand, or value in WIP. Is that correct?
I your are talking purely GL, then yes you are correct. On the part tran side, there will be no âchangeâ per se, but you still get the part tran records.
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Do not forget that stock and non-stock also plays on how the costs are used.
in what way?
If a part is manufactured and does not go to stock the system moves cost directly from job into job.
If the parts are purchased and non- stock and letâs say set to average. The system will not do the average cost calculations so if you happen to put the part into stock because it was not used for some reason. Vantage uses standard cost for the inventory trans and standard cost is not being adjusted because the average cost is not calculated and transferred over to standard cost during a cost rollup.
Steve
@Banderson @ckrusen Correct me if I am wrong, if the part has costs on it, then that number is used and that is what hits the financials when something is purchased/made. If there are NO costs on it, then costs from the Job are used, correct?
I donât know which one it uses specifically, youâll have to test, but I do know that it doesnât check for a 0 cost and do anything because of that. Everything has cost, because 0 is still a number.
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William,
It depends on the costing method.
If STD cost, the cost that hits COGS or Inventory will be the value on the PartCost table for STD cost (you set this with Cost adjustment or Costing workbench).
If AVG cost, its the value of the PO and Job that goes into the Avg and that Avg hits your financials.
What is COGS?
Cost of Goods Sold
So for Parts that are STD, that is whats in Part Tracker. IF AVG, then its an AVG of PO, Job, and value of Part Tracker? Or just the PO and Job?
Avg is the avg of all receipt or ship transactions for that part.
The values that you see in Part Tracker for STD and AVG are the values that will hit your books (± the changes to the avg from the current transaction).
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So, if the number in Job Tracker is zero for all methods, and yet the part is sold, does Epicor use the Job costs to hit the financials?
Depends on the costing methods.